Week 10
May 5, 2025
The Fed’s dual mandate according to the Federal Reserve Bank of Chicago
The FRB of Chicago calls the target inflation rate by \(\pi^*\)
We call it \(\pi^{_T}\)
The meaning is the same
All central banks in advanced countries have an optimal value for inflation they want to achieve. This is called the inflation target:\[\color{blue}{\pi^{_T}}\]
\(~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~\)
Source: Central Bank News
There are two different ways of looking at the target value:
Examples:
European Central Bank, 8 July 2021:
“The Governing Council considers that price stability is best maintained by aiming for a 2% inflation target over the medium term. This target is symmetric, meaning negative and positive deviations of inflation from the target are equally undesirable.”
How the textbook rule performs, compared with the Fed Funds Rate?
We may recall our well-known MP curve (rule) and the Fisher equation: \[ r=\bar{r}+\lambda \cdot \pi \tag{MP curve} \] \[ i=\pi+r \tag{Fisher eq.} \]
Insert the MP in the Fisher eq., and the Fed funds rate \((i)\) comes out as: \[ i=\bar{r}+\pi+\lambda \cdot \pi \]
Using data on \(\overline{r}, \pi, \lambda\), we can calculate \(i\) from this rule.
Then, we can compare this \(i\) with the Fed Funds Rate that the Fed sets over time.
See the following figure.
We set: \(\lambda=0.5, \overline{r}=2\). The textbook rule performs very badly.
John Taylor (1993) proposed a more comprehensive rule that includes the inflation gap:1 \[ \pi^{g a p}=\pi-\pi^{_T} \]
… and the output gap: \[ Y^{g a p}=\frac{Y-Y^P}{Y^P} \]
Output gap is usually expressed in percentage points \((+2 \%,-1 \%, \ldots)\)2
The Taylor rule gives the nominal interest rate set by the central bank as: \[ i=\overline{r}+\pi+\lambda \cdot \pi^{g a p}+\lambda \cdot Y^{g a p} \tag{1} \]
As the Fisher equation gives us: \[ i=\pi+r \tag{2} \]
Equalizing eq. (1) and (2), we get the real interest rate that results from the intervention of the central bank: \[ r=\overline{r}+\lambda \cdot \pi^{g a p}+\lambda \cdot Y^{g a p} \tag{3} \]
Finally, Taylor proposes the following values for the exogenous variables: \[ \overline{r}=2 \% \ \ , \ \pi^{_T} =2 \% \]
Weights: 0.5 for the output-gap, 0.5 for the inflation-gap.
Weights: 1.0 for the output-gap, 0.5 for the inflation-gap: it performs better
Why hasn’t the Fed put the federal funds rate on a Taylor rule autopilot ?
– From the Fear of Deflation to Galloping Inflation –
Over the last 15 years, we have lived under two extreme situations:
Terrible shocks hit Western economies:
In the summer of 2022, it was very “fashionable” to argue that the only way to control explosive inflation was to cause a severe recession.
For example, a very influential economist, Larry Summers, defended that:
“We need five years of unemployment above 5% to contain inflation – in other words, we need two years of 7.5$ unemployment or five years of 6% unemployment or one year of 10% unemployment.” speech in London, 20 June 2022. Bloomberg
Summers was not alone: there was quite a large chorus on this camp.
Fortunately, their predictions proved wrong: inflation has been coming down and unemployment has not gone up!
The Fed Funds Rate is the blue line (it is the overnight market rate); the FED sets the range (the gray interval) in the lower limit (0%). FRB of New York
A reduction in inflation of \(1 \%\) causes different (opposite) impacts upon \(Y\) and \(r\) when comparing the ZLB with the normal zone.
Not covered in this course.
Paul Krugman, Nobel Prize winner 2008: the ZLB is a “Alice through the looking glass” experience.
Suppose the economy falls into the ZLB (point \(1_{Z L}\) ). It will end up in the long-term equilibrium \(2_{Z L}\) and remain trapped there forever.
Consider that, for some reason, the economy is operating at point \(1_{Z L}\) in the ZLB. This point is determined by the intersection of the AD curve (which in the ZLB we call by ADzl) and the initial AS curve (AS1).
At point \(1_{_{Z L}}\), the economy has negative inflation \((\pi=-3.6 \%, Y=13.4)\), \(Y^P=14\) trillion dollars. This point represents a short-run equilibrium but not a long-run one because we are in a recession.
In a recession, inflation is forced to come down, which will shift the AS to the right (AS1->AS2). This movement will only stop when the recession is eliminated by declining inflation, which occurs when the AS2 crosses the ADzl at point \(2_{Z L}\).
Point \(2_{_{Z L}}\) represents the long-term equilibrium for this economy, with \((\pi=-2 \%)\), and \(Y=Y^P=14\). The economy will be stuck at this equilibrium forever until some new major shock forces it to move away from such a trap.
This case looks like what has happened to Japan since the late 1990s.
Suppose a big negative demand shock forces the economy to move to point 2. In the long term, it will end up at point 3.
Consider the economy is operating at point 1, with inflation of \(\pi_1=2 \%\) and \(Y=Y^P=14\) trillion dollars: it is a long-run equilibrium.
Suppose that the AD suffers a huge negative shock and the economy moves to point 2. This point is not a long-run equilibrium because we are in a large recession.
In a recession, inflation decreases, and the AS shifts to the right. The economy moves to point 3.
At point 3, demand is insufficient to match supply at a higher GDP level. So GDP is stuck at a level that is permanently lower than what the economy can produce ( \(Y^P=14\) ). Only very aggressive monetary and fiscal expansionary policies can (by forcing a large increase in AD ) remove the economy from such stagnation.
Not compulsory; Not included in TESTS/EXAMS.
From the Fisher equation we have \[ r=i-\pi\tag{4} \]
From the MP curve we have \[ r=\overline{r}+\lambda \pi \tag{5} \]
Equalizing eq. (4) and (5), and imposing the ZLB condition \((i=0)\), we get the inflation rate that corresponds to the ZLB: \[ \overline{r}+\lambda \pi=\underbrace{i}_{=0}-\pi \quad \Rightarrow \quad \pi_{_{Z L}}=-\frac{\overline{r}}{1+\lambda} \tag{6} \]
Therefore, from (6) we can obtain \[ \overline{r}=-(1+\lambda) \pi_{_{Z L}} \tag{7} \]
Now, substitute eq. (7) into eq. (5), and we will obtain \[r=-(1+\lambda) \pi_{_{ZL}}+\lambda \pi_{_{_ZL}} \quad \Rightarrow \quad r=-\pi_{_{_ZL}} \tag{8}\]
Surprisingly, as in the ZLB \((i=0 \%)\), the MP curve acquires a negative slope. \[r=-\pi_{_{Z L}} \tag{9}\]
with values for inflation in the ZLB such that \[ \pi_{_{_ {ZL}}} \leq-\frac{\bar{r}}{1+\lambda} \tag{10} \]
Read Chapter 13 of the adopted textbook:
Frederic S. Mishkin (2015). Macroeconomics: Policy & Practice, Second Edition, Pearson Editors.